Post by iris89 on Feb 21, 2011 17:38:34 GMT -5
Digital E-Book Showing What Many Call A Chief Doctrine of Christendom Is Really False:
This e-book has as its purpose to show what the Bible truth is with regard to a doctrine that many consider a chief doctrine of Christendom, but this book exposes it as NOT in agreement with the inspired word of Almighty God (YHWH). This will be done in two parts.
The First will take the appropriate parts of The Westminster Confession of faith was written by one Cornelius Burges, Assessor to the Westminster Assembly, in 1646. It will show that every scripture he referred to was taken out of context.
The Second will give many Bible scriptures that clearly show this doctrine can NOT be true which all can check for themselves in their own Bible.
Table of Contents:
Part One:
INTRODUCTION TO THE WESTMINSTER CONFESSION OF FAITH AS NOTHING BUT A HERMENEUTIC METHODOLOGY TO WRONGLY BACK-UP A MYTH/FALSE DOCTRINE:
I FIRST AND SECOND PART OF A CLEVER DECEPTION
III SECTION THREE, THE GREAT DECEPTION
IV APPENDIX TO COMMENTARY ON 1 JOHN 5:7
<<Sub Section 'O' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
<<Sub Section 'P' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
<<Sub Section 'Q' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
<CONCLUSION> (section only)
V REFERENCES:
Part Two:
INTRODUCTION, covering many Bible scriptures that clearly show this doctrine can NOT be true which all can check for themselves in their own Bible.
I FIRST, IT SAYS AT MANY PLACES THE FOLLOWING:
II THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY SAYS:
III THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY SHOWS JESUS (YESHUA) ASKING HIS FATHER, ALMIGHTY GOD (YHWH) TO GLORIFY HIM IN A PRAYER AS FOLLOWS:
IV THE BIBLE CLEARLY SAYS "AND BEING FOUND IN FASHION AS A MAN, HE HUMBLED HIMSELF, AND BECAME OBEDIENT UNTO DEATH, EVEN THE DEATH OF THE CROSS."THIS SCRIPTURE CLEARLY SHOWS JESUS (YESHUA) TO BE AN OBEDIENT SON TO HIS FATHER (YHWH).
V AS WE ALL KNOW THE GIVER AND THE RECEIVER CAN NOT BE THE SAME, THE BIBLE SHOWS THAT JESUS (YESHUA) WAS GIVEN POWER BY HIS FATHER (YHWH).
VI JESUS (YESHUA) CLEARLY SAID HE COULD DO NOTHING OF HIS OWN INITIATIVE, BUT ONLY WHAT HE BEHOLDS THE FATHER (YHWH) DOING:
VII NOW THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY SHOWS THE CHAIN-OF-COMMAND; FROM ALMIGHTY GOD (YHWH) ON DOWN AS FOLLOWS:
Part Three:
THE TRINITY OF THREE SCRIPTURES DESTROYS THE MYTH OF THE TRINITY:
The E-Book
INTRODUCTION TO THE WESTMINSTER CONFESSION OF FAITH AS NOTHING BUT A HERMENEUTIC METHODOLOGY TO WRONGLY BACK-UP A MYTH/FALSE DOCTRINE:
The Westminster Confession of faith was written by one Cornelius Burges, Assessor to the Westminster Assembly, in 1646. He was a very skilled individual with respect twisting the scriptures and chose hermeneutic methodology over 'Sola Scriptura' methodology as hermeneutic methodology was well suited for twisting the scripture to eloquently make it appear that the Word of God supported what ever you wanted it to; whereas, this could NOT be done with 'Sola Scripture' methodology unless it was greatly distorted and no longer true 'Sola Scriptura' methodology.
In Section 2 of the Westminister Confession of faith dealing with the Trinity myth which he supported, he did a masterpiece of deception in obfuscating the Word of God to make it appear that it backed his favorite myth/false doctrine of the Trinity which of course it does not. In fact, nowhere does the word Trinity even appear in the Bible, as was noted by the International Encyclopedia of the Bible (*1). He carefully crafted his deception in three parts, the first, 'There is but one only living, and true God:' is true and designed to throw one off guard to the deception to follow in the last part of Section 2, clever as is the deception of any con man. The second part, 'God hath all life,(a) glory,(b) goodness,(c) blessedness,(d) in and of Himself;' is likewise basically true, but with some very subtle deception or twisting in it designed to develop the readers confidence so the reader will gulp down the God (YHWH) dishonoring false doctrine and myth of the third part as Truth which of course it is anything but.
I FIRST AND SECOND PART OF A CLEVER DECEPTION
I. & II. There is but one only,(a) living, and true God:(b) who is infinite in being and perfection,(c) a most pure spirit,(d) invisible,(e) without body, parts,(f) or passions,(g) immutable,(h) immense,(i) eternal,(k) incomprehensible,(l) almighty,(m) most wise,(n) most holy,(o) most free,(p) most absolute,(q) working all things according to the counsel of His own immutable and most righteous will,(r) for His own glory;(s) most loving,(t) gracious, merciful, long-suffering, abundant in goodness and truth, forgiving iniquity, transgression, and sin;(u) the rewarder of them that diligently seek Him;(w) and withal, most just and terrible in His judgments,(x) hating all sin,(y) and who will by no means clear the guilty.(z)
(a) Deut. 6:4; I Cor. 8:4, 6.
(b) I Thess. 1:9; Jer. 10:10.
(c) Job 11:7, 8, 9; Job 26:14.
(d) John 4:24.
(e) I Tim. 1:17.
(f) Deut. 4:15, 16; John 4:24, with Luke 24:39.
(g) Acts 14:11, 15.
(h) James 1:17; Mal. 3:6.
(i) I Kings 8:27; Jer. 23:23, 24.
(k) Ps. 90:2; I Tim. 1:17.
(l) Ps. 145:3.
(m) Gen. 17:1; Rev. 4:8.
(n) Rom. 16:27.
(o) Isa. 6:3; Rev. 4:8.
(p) Ps. 115:3.
(q) Exod. 3:14.
(r) Eph. 1:11.
(s) Prov. 16:4; Rom. 11:36.
(t) I John 4:8, 16.
(u) Exod. 34:6, 7.
(w) Heb. 11:6.
(x) Neh. 9:32, 33.
(y) Ps. 5:5, 6.
(z) Nah. 1:2, 3; Exod. 34:7.
II. God hath all life,(a) glory,(b) goodness,(c) blessedness,(d) in and of Himself; and is alone in and unto Himself all-sufficient, not standing in need of any creatures which He hath made,(e) nor deriving any glory from them,(f) but only manifesting His own glory in, by, unto, and upon them: He is the alone fountain of all being, of whom, through whom, and to whom are all things;(g) and hath most sovereign dominion over them, to do by them, for them, or upon them whatsoever Himself pleaseth.(h) In His sight all things are open and manifest;(i) His knowledge is infinite, infallible, and independent upon the creature,(k) so as nothing is to Him contingent, or uncertain.(l) He is most holy in all His counsels, in all His works, and in all His commands.(m) To Him is due from angels and men, and every other creature, whatsoever worship, service, or obedience He is pleased to require of them.(n)
(a) John 5:26.
(b) Acts 7:2.
(c) Ps. 119:68.
(d) I Tim. 6:15; Rom. 9:5.
(e) Acts 17:24, 25.
(f) Job 22:2, 3.
(g) Rom 11:36.
(h) Rev. 4:11; I Tim. 6:15; Dan. 4:25, 35.
(i) Heb. 4:13.
(k) Rom. 11:33, 34; Ps. 147:5.
(l) Acts 15:18; Ezek. 11:5.
(m) Ps. 145:17; Rom. 7:12.
(n) Rev. 5:12, 13, 14.
Please note his reference to scripture in both part 1 and 2 designed to gain the readers confidence who does not realize the difference between hermeneutic methodology which is usually used to twist and true 'Sola Scriptura' methodology which is designed to bring out Bible Truths or to let the Bible interpret itself per 2 Peter 1:20, "Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.," (Authorized King James Bible; AV). Also, please bear in mind the following two scriptures from the Old Testament when we next discuss Section 3 and think why they show this whole section is error. These scriptures are:
Psalm 80:17 "Let thy hand be upon the MAN of thy right hand, upon the son of man whom thou madest strong for thyself." (AV).
In Colossians 3:1 "If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God." (AV).
Now just thing, If Jesus Christ sits on the right hand of God, then he must be the MAN mentioned in Psalm 80:17. And if Jesus Christ is the MAN that sits on the right hand of God...., obviously Cornelius Burges, Assessor to the Westminster Assembly, is a deceptive twister and all he says is to be rejected as the God (YHWH) dishonoring teaching of mankind warned against at Titus 1:10-11, "For there are many unruly and vain talkers and deceivers, specially they of the circumcision: 11 Whose mouths must be stopped, who subvert whole houses, teaching things which they ought not, for filthy lucre's sake." (AV); remember many false prophets like Cornelius Burgess, per 1 John 4:1, "Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world." (AV).
III SECTION THREE, THE GREAT DECEPTION
Section three shall be covered by first presenting exactly what the deceiver Cornelius Burgess wrote, and the scriptures he used in a hermeneutics methodology way of deceiving to seemingly back up the false doctrine and myth he was presenting. Then, each scripture he used in his deception will be commented on individually to show its true Biblical significance as the Word of God so all will be able to understand how Cornelius Burgess was being deceitful and twisting the Word of God.
In the unity of the Godhead there be three persons, of one substance, power, and eternity; God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost.(o) The Father is of none, neither begotten, nor proceeding: the Son is eternally begotten of the Father:(p) the Holy Ghost eternally proceeding from the Father and the Son.(q)
(o) I John 5:7; Matt. 3:16, 17; Matt. 28:19; II Cor. 13:14.
(p) John 1:14, 18.
(q) John 15:26; Gal. 4:6.
Now we shall deal with each scripture individually by section:
<<Sub Section 'O' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
The first scripture, the deceiver Cornelius Burgess used was an added to scripture of 1 John 5:7 as contained in the Authorized King James Bible which is the most well known intentional distortion of scripture in the entire Bible, what lack of integrity and honesty:
Commentary on 1 John 5:7:
1 John 5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." (Authorized King James: AV)
1 John 5:7 "And there are Three who give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost. And these three are one." (Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible)
1 John 5:7 " For there are three that testify:" (New American Standard Bible: NASB)
1 John 5:7 "There are three that testify:" (New Revised Standard Version; NRSV)
1 John 5:7 "quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant (The Latin Vulgate)
As one can clearly see these three scriptures all of 1 John 5:7, are quite different, now why is this? Let's find out!
Many say 1 John 5:7 is the center masterpiece for the concept of the Trinity, i.e., the center or sustaining gem so to speak of this doctrine. One such follows:
This is the only passage in the whole Bible that gives any color to the trinity or "oneness" doctrines. It is the central crystal of the Christian faith upon which we hold the blessed trinity to be ever eternal self-evident to all. [Catholic pamphlet from 1903]
Now for this to be true, the Authorized King James and the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible versions would of necessity have to be true and the New American Standard Bible rendering false; but then Jerome's original Latin Vulgate had a rendering more in line with the New American Standard Bible (NASB) so there is cast the question of why the earliest Catholic bible was quite different from the present.
Really one or the other would have to be an intentional corruption of scripture in violation of Revelation 22:18, "It testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God shall add to him the plagues which are written in this book;" (NASB)
Clearly someone has added to one of these two renderings of 1 John 5:7 since this is clearly NOT a difference resulting from differs in translation. Now which has been added to in violation of God's (YHWH's) commandment as recorded by his Apostle John?
Well let's see what the Moody Bible Institute has to say on this in one of their publications. "The text of this verse should read, 'Because there are three that bear record.' The remainder of the verse is spurious. Not a single manuscript contains the Trinitarian addition before the fourteenth century, and the verse is never quoted in the controversies over the Trinity in the first 450 years of the church era." [The Wycliffe Bible Commentary," edited by Charles F. Pfeiffer (OT) and Earett F. Harrison (NT), by Moody Press, Chicago, a division of Moody Bible Institute, ISBN: 0-8024-9695-4, Library of Congress Catalogue Card #: 62-20893, page 1477].
Quite an admission from an institute that is pro-Trinitarian; therefore, the New American Standard Bible is correct and the Authorized King James and the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible are in gross error here with respect to this addition made in violation of the command of Revelation 18:22. My what a surprise. In fact this corruption, "and these three are one" was added by a monk, and is so well knows, as previously mentioned, as a corrupt and spurious verse addition that it even has its own name, Comma Johanna (in Greek, Comma Ioanneum), can you imagine that?
In fact this corruption of scripture does not appear in any manuscript in or out of the New Testament earlier than the 13 th. Century. It occurs in NO ancient Gree, manuscript, nor in the writings of any Greek Christian writers. "It is universally discredited by Greek scholars and editors of the Greek text of the New Testament." ["The Goodspeed Parallel New Testament," by Edgar J. Goodspeed - Chicago 1943, page 557].
Strange, all good Bible scholars recognize this as spurious including Catholic scholars, but, "....most Catholic writers of the present day agree the words were not contained in the original test; at the same time, until further action be taken by the Holy See it is not open to Catholic editors to eliminate the words from a version made for use of the faithful." [The Westminister Version of the Sacred Scriptures," Cutbert Lattey, S.J., and Joseph Keating, S.J., general editors, Vol. IV, pages 145 and 146, London 1931]. Now really why is this, obviously they do NOT want the 'faithful' to know they have NOT been told the truth and that their false Trinity doctrine does not 'hold water.'
Most modern Bibles have eliminated this spurious addition done against the command found at Revelations 22:18: see the following:
For there are three that testify: (New American Standard Bible: NASB)
There are three that testify: (New Revised Standard Version: NRSV)
And the Spirit is the witness, because the Spirit is the truth. (The Revised Standard Version; RSV)
There are three witnesses: (The Good News Translation)
So there are three witnesses that tell us about Jesus: (New Century Version)
It is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth. (World English Version)
For they that bear witness are three. (The Darby Translation)
For there are three that testify: (Holman Standard Christian Translation)
For there are three that give testimony-- the Spirit, the water, and the blood; (Weymouth Translation)
For there are three that testify: (New International Version)
Now really, how can anyone in all honesty believe a false doctrine whose principle support has been text that is spurious or test that can be translated at least nine (9) different ways without violating the grammatical rules of Koine Greek as can John 1:1? Especially so when the common rendering is shown to be out of context by John 1:2 and John 1:14 right after it.
Obviously thinking individuals should recognize the nonsense doctrine of the three-in-one god as spurious God (YHWH) dishonoring doctrine of men and NOT from God (YHWH).
IV APPENDIX TO COMMENTARY ON 1 JOHN 5:7
(1) The Textual Problem in 1 John 5:7-8 by Daniel B. Wallace, Ph.D.
"5:7 For there are three that testify, 5:8 the Spirit and the water and the blood, and these three are in agreement." --NET Bible
Before toV pneu'ma kaiV toV u{dwr kaiV toV ai|ma, the Textus Receptus reads ejn tw'/ oujranw'/, oJ pathvr, oJ lovgo", kaiV toV a{gion pneu'ma, kaiV ou|toi oiJ trei'" e{n eijsi. 5:8 kaiV trei'" eijsin oiJ marturou'nte" ejn th'/ gh'/ ("in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 5:8 And there are three that testify on earth"). This reading, the infamous Comma Johanneum, has been known in the English-speaking world through the King James translation. However, the evidence-both external and internal-is decidedly against its authenticity. Our discussion will briefly address the external evidence.1
This longer reading is found only in eight late manuscripts, four of which have the words in a marginal note. Most of these manuscripts (2318, 221, and [with minor variations] 61, 88, 429, 629, 636, and 918) originate from the 16th century; the earliest manuscript, codex 221 (10th century), includes the reading in a marginal note which was added sometime after the original composition. Thus, there is no sure evidence of this reading in any Greek manuscript until the 1500s; each such reading was apparently composed after Erasmus' Greek NT was published in 1516. Indeed, the reading appears in no Greek witness of any kind (either manuscript, patristic, or Greek translation of some other version) until AD 1215 (in a Greek translation of the Acts of the Lateran Council, a work originally written in Latin). This is all the more significant, since many a Greek Father would have loved such a reading, for it so succinctly affirms the doctrine of the Trinity.2 The reading seems to have arisen in a fourth century Latin homily in which the text was allegorized to refer to members of the Trinity. From there, it made its way into copies of the Latin Vulgate, the text used by the Roman Catholic Church.
The Trinitarian formula (known as the Comma Johanneum) made its way into the third edition of Erasmus' Greek NT (1522) because of pressure from the Catholic Church. After his first edition appeared (1516), there arose such a furor over the absence of the Comma that Erasmus needed to defend himself. He argued that he did not put in the Comma because he found no Greek manuscripts that included it. Once one was produced (codex 61, written by one Roy or Froy at Oxford in c. 1520),3 Erasmus apparently felt obliged to include the reading. He became aware of this manuscript sometime between May of 1520 and September of 1521. In his annotations to his third edition he does not protest the rendering now in his text,4 as though it were made to order; but he does defend himself from the charge of indolence, noting that he had taken care to find whatever manuscripts he could for the production of his Greek New Testament. In the final analysis, Erasmus probably altered the text because of politico-theologico-economic concerns: he did not want his reputation ruined, nor his Novum Instrumentum to go unsold.
Modern advocates of the Textus Receptus and KJV generally argue for the inclusion of the Comma Johanneum on the basis of heretical motivation by scribes who did not include it. But these same scribes elsewhere include thoroughly orthodox readings-even in places where the TR/Byzantine manuscripts lack them. Further, these KJV advocates argue theologically from the position of divine preservation: since this verse is in the TR, it must be original. But this approach is circular, presupposing as it does that the TR = the original text. Further, it puts these Protestant proponents in the awkward and self-contradictory position of having to affirm that the Roman Catholic humanist, Erasmus, was just as inspired as the apostles, for on several occasions he invented readings-due either to carelessness or lack of Greek manuscripts (in particular, for the last six verses of Revelation Erasmus had to back-translate from Latin to Greek).
In reality, the issue is history, not heresy: How can one argue that the Comma Johanneum must go back to the original text when it did not appear until the 16th century in any Greek manuscripts? Such a stance does not do justice to the gospel: faith must be rooted in history. To argue that the Comma must be authentic is Bultmannian in its method, for it ignores history at every level. As such, it has very little to do with biblical Christianity, for a biblical faith is one that is rooted in history.
Significantly, the German translation done by Luther was based on Erasmus' second edition (1519) and lacked the Comma. But the KJV translators, basing their work principally on Theodore Beza's 10th edition of the Greek NT (1598), a work which itself was fundamentally based on Erasmus' third and later editions (and Stephanus' editions), popularized the Comma for the English-speaking world. Thus, the Comma Johanneum has been a battleground for English-speaking Christians more than for others.
Unfortunately, for many, the Comma and other similar passages have become such emotional baggage that is dragged around whenever the Bible is read that a knee-jerk reaction and ad hominem argumentation becomes the first and only way that they can process this issue. Sadly, neither empirical evidence nor reason can dissuade them from their views. The irony is that their very clinging to tradition at all costs (namely, of an outmoded translation which, though a literary monument in its day, is now like a Model T on the Autobahn) emulates Roman Catholicism in its regard for tradition.5 If the King James translators knew that this would be the result nearly four hundred years after the completion of their work, they'd be writhing in their graves.
1 For a detailed discussion, see Metzger, Textual Commentary, 2nd ed., 647-49.
2 Not only the ancient orthodox writers, but also modern orthodox scholars would of course be delighted if this reading were the original one. But the fact is that the evidence simply does not support the Trinitarian formula here-and these orthodox scholars just happen to hold to the reasonable position that it is essential to affirm what the Bible affirms where it affirms it, rather than create such affirmations ex nihilo. That KJV advocates have charged modern translations with heresy because they lack the Comma is a house of cards, for the same translators who have worked on the NIV, NASB, or NET (as well as many other translations) have written several articles and books affirming the Trinity.
3 This manuscript which contains the entire New Testament is now housed in Dublin. It has been examined so often at this one place that the book now reportedly falls open naturally to 1 John 5.
4 That Erasmus made such a protest or that he had explicitly promised to include the Comma is an overstatement of the evidence, though the converse of this can be said to be true: Erasmus refused to put this in his without Greek manuscript support.
5 Thus, TR-KJV advocates subconsciously embrace two diametrically opposed traditions: when it comes to the first 1500 years of church history, they hold to a Bultmannian kind of Christianity (viz., the basis for their belief in the superiority of the Byzantine manuscripts-and in particular, the half dozen that stand behind the TR-has very little empirical substance of historical worth). Once such readings became a part of tradition, however, by way of the TR, the argument shifts to one of tradition rather than non-empirical fideism. Neither basis, of course, resembles Protestantism
Commentary on Matthew 3:13-17 all 'Sola Scriptura,' covering Matthew 3:16-17 and more.
Matthew 3:13-17 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to the Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John would have hindered him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 But Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffereth him. 16 And Jesus when he was baptized, went up straightway from the water: and lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove, and coming upon him; 17 and lo, a voice out of the heavens, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. [American Standard Version; ASV]
Clearly this scripture shows that Jesus' (Yeshua's) Father, Almighty God (YHWH) approved of his Son, and sent his spirit, the Spirit of God. This was also testified to at Acts 10:38, "How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him." (Authorized King James Bible; AV); And at Luke 9:34-35, "And there came a voice out of the cloud, and overshadowed them: and they feared as they entered into the cloud. 35 And there came a voice out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him." (AV); And at Matthew 17:5, "While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him." (AV). In fact, John the Baptist said as recorded at John 1:32, "And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. 33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the holy Ghost." (AV). Clearly these scriptures show two separate individuals or beings, a superior one, Almighty God (YHWH), and a subordinate one, his Son, Jesus (Yeshua).
Now what is this Spirit or Holy Spirit that John the Baptist mentioned? The Holy Spirit is only God's (YHWH's) active force and not even a spirit being or person. This is clearly shown at Pentecost where the Holy Spirit was poured out onto all there, Acts 2:1-4, "And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. 2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. 3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance." (AV). This entire scripture bespeaks of a force and not a being as you do not get filled with a being! And this fact is reaffirmed at Acts 4:31, ""And when they had prayed, the place was shaken where they were assembled together; and they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and they spoke the word of God with boldness." (AV); And 2 Corinthians 1:21-22, "Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God; 22 Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts." (AV), surely a being would not be in our hearts as that is ludicrous, thus this scripture talks of God's (YHWH's) active force; This is clearly shown at Luke 11:13, "If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?" (AV). Once more, why? Why? Do many say they are coequal and coeternal when clearly they are not and the Holy Ghost is just God's (YHWH's) active force? Only to try to give some resemblance of reality to a myth as we shall later see. An interesting note on the Spirit is that the neuter Greek word for spirit (pneu'ma) is used, the neuter pronoun "it" is properly employed. This fact is conveniently over looked or hidden by most Trinitarian translators as admitted in the "New American Bible Catholic Bible," regarding John 14:17: "The Greek word for 'Spirit' is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English ('he,' 'his,' 'him'), most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ 'it.'" So when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with pa•ra'kle•tos at John 16:7, 8, it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine.
Jesus' (Yeshua's) coming and his anointing by his Father (YHWH) was foretold in advance at Isaiah 42:1 where God (YHWH) called his Son his servant, "Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles." (AV); And Matthew 12:18 foretells the fulfillment, "Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles." (AV). Likewise, this is testified to at Isaiah 11:2, "And the spirit of the Lord shall rest upon him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the Lord;" (AV). In fact, Jesus (Yeshua) prayed to his Father (YHWH) just before his execution, saying at John 12:28, "Father, glorify thy name, Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again." (AV).
Yet there are those misguided ones that accept the false God (YHWH) dishonoring doctrine of the Trinity that claim the Father (YHWH) and the Son, Jesus (Yeshua) are coequal which clearly when one prays to the other, this claim can NOT be true. In fact, the doctrine of The Trinity defies the universally accepted and historically always held meaning of the words for father and son. Not only does it defy the meaning of these words, it destroys their meaning! This fact is important to realize for God gave us language. It was not invented by man as the evolutionist tries to say. Thus, we are not destroying man made terms, but God-given terms! One well known document, The Westminister Confession, even goes so far as to state, "In the unity of the Godhead there be three persons, of one substance, power, and eternity." But we have seen this is impossible if the Bible is true. At John 14:28, "Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I." (AV); thus, clearly no coequality as required by the Godhead theory of this document as clearly earlier shown. The Spirit is not even a being, but God's (YHWH's) active force.
Commentary on 2 Corinthians 13:13-14 all 'Sola Scriptura,' covering 2 Corinthians 13:14 and more:
2 Corinthians 13:13-14 All the saints salute you. 14 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit, be with you all. (American Standard Version; ASV)
Here the Apostle Paul expresses the hope that the grace of the Lord, Jesus (Yeshua) Christ, and of love of his Father, God (YHWH), and the spirit or power of God (YHWH) shall be on all true Christians. And the Apostle John follows through with this thought at John 14:26, "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." (Authorized King James Bible; AV). Of this Holy Spirit or Ghost, Jesus (Yeshua) spoke of the holy spirit as a "helper," and he said it would teach, guide, and speak as recorded at John 14:16-17, "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; 17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you." (AV). And this same thought is carried at John 16:13, ""Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. 14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you." (AV). The Greek word he used for helper (pa•ra'kle•tos) is in the masculine gender. Thus, when Jesus referred to what the helper would do, he used masculine personal pronouns as shown at John 16:7- 8, "Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. 8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment." (AV). On the other hand, when the neuter Greek word for spirit (pneu'ma) is used, the neuter pronoun "it" is properly employed. This fact is conveniently over looked or hidden by most Trinitarian translators as admitted in the "New American Bible Catholic Bible," regarding John 14:17: "The Greek word for 'Spirit' is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English ('he,' 'his,' 'him'), most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ 'it.'" So when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with pa•ra'kle•tos at John 16:7, 8, it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine.
This scripture, 2 Corinthians 13:13-14 previously quoted, brings up the need for unity among all true Christians as do the scriptures immediately prior to it, 2 Corinthians 13:11-12, "Finally, brethren, farewell. Be perfected; be comforted; be of the same mind; live in peace: and the God of love and peace shall be with you. 12 Salute one another with a holy kiss." (ASV), and this need is further testified to at Ephesians 4:13, "Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ:" (AV). We need to per Ephesians 4:21-22, "If indeed you have heard Him and have been taught in Him, just as truth is in Jesus, 22 that in reference to your former manner of life, you lay aside the old self, which is being corrupted in accordance with the lusts of deceit," (New American Standard Bible, Ref. Ed., by Moody Press; NASB-MP), this scripture clearly showing the need to make over our personality unto the new personality acceptable to Jesus (Yeshua) Christ as testified to at Ephesians 4:23, "And be renewed tn the spirit of your mind; 24 And that ye put on the new man, which after God is created in righteousness and true holiness." (NASB-MP). This is necessary as there is only one Almighty God (YHWH) as testified to at Ephesians 4:6, "One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all." (AV). For a certainty each of us, if we accept, is, Ephesians 4:7, "But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ." (AV).
Clearly since there is but one Almighty God (YHWH) There can be no Trinity which is a myth requiring a 'Godhead' of three equal beings, coeternal and coequal as affirmed in the Westminister Confession, "In the unity of the Godhead there be three persons, of one substance, power, and eternity." But as we have seen, no such relationship exist between Almighty God (YHWH), the superior one; his son, the Son of God, Jesus (Yeshua) of which the Bible testifies at 1 Corinthians 11:3, "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God." )AV) clearly showing God (YHWH) is the head of Jesus (Yeshua) Christ; thus proving they are not coequal. Likewise Revelations 3:14 clearly shows they are not coeternal, "And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;" which shows him as the first of God's (YHWH's) creation. In fact, when Jesus (Yeshua) was ascending to be with his Father in heaven, he prayed, as recorded in John 17:5, "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." (AV). Showing he was returning to where he had been before with his Father (YHWH), see John 6:62, "What then if you should behold the Son of Man ascending where He was before?" (NASB-MP). Once returned to heaven, God's (YHWH's) Son, Jesus (Yeshua) is, 1 Peter 3:22, "Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him" (AV).
<<Sub Section 'P' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
Commentary on John 1:14 all 'Sola Scriptura.'
John 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father), full of grace and truth. (American Standard Version; ASV)
This scripture emphasis that Jesus (Yeshua) was sent to the earth to dwell among us as testified to at 1 John 4:9, "In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him." (AV); And 1 John 4:14, "And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world." (AV), clearly Jesus' (Yeshua's) Father (YHWH) sent him showing he was superior and not coequal with His Son; And Romans 6:23, "For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord." (AV). In fact, the scriptures clearly show that all true Christians must confess Jesus (Yeshua) has come in the flesh as testified to at 1 John 4:2, "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God." (AV); whereas, 2 John 7 states shows many deceiver would come, "For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist." (AV).
Clearly the only way to God (YHWH) is through his Son, Jesus (Yeshua) whom he has appointed as, 1 Timothy 2:5, "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;" (AV); and this is made even clearer by Jesus (Yeshua) at John 14:6, "Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me." (AV). God (YHWH) has given his Son Jesus (Yeshua) an assignment and given him power over everything except himself to carry it out as testified to at 1 Corinthians 15:22-28, "For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. 25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." (AV), testifies that God (YHWH) had given his Son, Jesus (Yeshua) over all except himself when the scripture says "it is manifest that he is excepted."
Jesus (Yeshua) actually prayed to his Father (YHWH) just before being put to death as a human to give him back the glory he previously had with his Father (YHWH) in heaven as recorded at John 17:5- "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. 6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept my word. 7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee. 8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me." (AV). Unmistakably Jesus (Yeshua) acknowledges in his prayer that his Father, Almighty God (YHWH) had given him everything and was his superior when he stated, "I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me." Therefore, we see that the Trinity is but a myth as the reality is that Jesus (Yeshua) is NOT coequal with his Father (YHWH), but that his Father, Almighty God (YHWH) is the Supreme one.
Commentary on John 1:18 all 'Sola Scriptura.'
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (American Standard Version, ASV)
Now this scripture seem straight forward and it is, but some translations did a poor job of translating it. Let's look at how the New International Version (NIV) translates this, "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.' Would appear to show Jesus (Yeshua) as the One and Only, but this is just an error in translation in the NIV as shown by both the Authorized King James (AV) which renders it, ""No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." And the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible renders it, "No one has at any time seen God. The only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has revealed him." Now some may ask, how do you determine for sure which way of translating is correct. You do this quite simply by investigation the scripture from the Old Testament actually being quoted here by the Apostle John for the first part of this scripture which is Exodus 33:20, "And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live." (Authorized King James Bible; AV); And compare with similar scriptures in the New Testament such as John 6:46, "Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father." (AV). Then you check the Old Testament scripture from which the Apostle John took the second part, Proverbs 8:30, where Jesus (Yeshua) while in heaven was speaking, "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him; and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him," (AV). And cross reference this in the New Testament to John 13:23, "Now there was leaning on Jesus' bosom one of his disciples, whom Jesus loved." (AV).
Now of course, people have seen Jesus (Yeshua). The Apostle John, who wrote John 1:18, saw Jesus. He even said four verses earlier that Jesus (God
according to Trinitarians) had become flesh, John 1:14, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth." Yet no one has seen God. If John were trying to say in John 1:1 that Jesus (Yeshua) was God (YHWH) and then a few verses later say no one has seen God (YHWH), would he not need to put some type of qualifying statement explaining how this can be? Or are we to assume his readers had a firm grasp of the Duality or Trinity and needed no explanation of this paradox? While some Bibles say "only-begotten son" the oldest manuscripts say "only-begotten god". Most Bible do not want to translate it literally that way since this would imply Jesus (Yeshua) was made a god by God (YHWH). So the New International Version (NIV) reads as I quoted above "God the One and Only". However, the footnote to the NIV reads "or the Only-Begotten". It is proper that the NIV placed that footnote in its Bible translation because we are inclined to ask, "the One and Only what?" In what way is the Son the 'One and Only God' that the Father (YHWH)is not? John said that Jesus (Yeshua) was with God (YHWH) and yet was a god and Jesus (Yeshua) was the only begotten son of God (YHWH), the context supports a literal translation of John 1:18. Jesus (Yeshua) was the "only-begotten god". That is, God Almighty created Jesus and put him in the position o***od or mighty spirit person whom He used to create the rest of the universe.
While it is true that angels and men can be referred to as "gods", they were not begotten directly by Almighty God.
Interestingly the NIV says, John 6:27, "Do not work for food that spoils, but for food that endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give you. On him God the Father has placed his seal of approval." (NIV). It is obvious that there are two individuals here: the Son of Man (Yeshua) and God the Father (YHWH). Two separate and distinct persons. Also notice that the Father (YHWH) places his "seal of approval" on the Son. But nowhere in the Bible is there a Scripture where the Son, Jesus (Yeshua) places approval on the Father (YHWH). This shows or indicates that the Father is in the superior position and the Son is in the inferior position, i.e., they are NOT COEQUAL.
The NIV reaffirms this fact, they are NOT COEQUAL at 1 Peter 1:1-2, "Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To God's elect, strangers in the world, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia, 2 who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through the sanctifying work of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and sprinkling by his blood: Grace and peace be yours in abundance." (NIV). Once more we see two separate and distinct beings here: God the Father (YHWH) and Jesus (Yeshua) Christ.
Now some will say that Jesus (Yeshua) and His Father (YHWH) are one-and-the-same based on the usual out of context rendering of John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Well, try to keep the mental context of who Jesus was to the people who lived and studied about him when the Bible text was written. Apart from this verse, there is no indicator that anyone thought that Jesus (Yeshua)was God (YHWH). This is made clear by John 1:2, which shows, "The same was in the beginning with God." (AV); And John 1:10, "He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not." (AV); Last consider John 1:14, previously quoted, and it is quite clear that they are NOT the same individual. But two distinct individuals. Note, some Bibles correctly render this as either as "the Word was a god," or "the Word was Divine." Both of these are in harmony with the remaining scriptures in John the first chapter.
The fact is that no Apostle nor any other writer of the Bible ever came out and stated that "there is One God: Father, Son, and Holy Ghost". No example of the thousands of occurrences of YHWH and God in the original manuscripts can be shown to mean 'God in three Persons' as some falsely claim. In fact neither the word Duality nor Trinity appear nowhere in the scriptures. So be ye not mislead into believing the doctrines of men, but remember John 8:32, "And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free." (AV).
See Part Two:
This e-book has as its purpose to show what the Bible truth is with regard to a doctrine that many consider a chief doctrine of Christendom, but this book exposes it as NOT in agreement with the inspired word of Almighty God (YHWH). This will be done in two parts.
The First will take the appropriate parts of The Westminster Confession of faith was written by one Cornelius Burges, Assessor to the Westminster Assembly, in 1646. It will show that every scripture he referred to was taken out of context.
The Second will give many Bible scriptures that clearly show this doctrine can NOT be true which all can check for themselves in their own Bible.
Table of Contents:
Part One:
INTRODUCTION TO THE WESTMINSTER CONFESSION OF FAITH AS NOTHING BUT A HERMENEUTIC METHODOLOGY TO WRONGLY BACK-UP A MYTH/FALSE DOCTRINE:
I FIRST AND SECOND PART OF A CLEVER DECEPTION
III SECTION THREE, THE GREAT DECEPTION
IV APPENDIX TO COMMENTARY ON 1 JOHN 5:7
<<Sub Section 'O' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
<<Sub Section 'P' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
<<Sub Section 'Q' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
<CONCLUSION> (section only)
V REFERENCES:
Part Two:
INTRODUCTION, covering many Bible scriptures that clearly show this doctrine can NOT be true which all can check for themselves in their own Bible.
I FIRST, IT SAYS AT MANY PLACES THE FOLLOWING:
II THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY SAYS:
III THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY SHOWS JESUS (YESHUA) ASKING HIS FATHER, ALMIGHTY GOD (YHWH) TO GLORIFY HIM IN A PRAYER AS FOLLOWS:
IV THE BIBLE CLEARLY SAYS "AND BEING FOUND IN FASHION AS A MAN, HE HUMBLED HIMSELF, AND BECAME OBEDIENT UNTO DEATH, EVEN THE DEATH OF THE CROSS."THIS SCRIPTURE CLEARLY SHOWS JESUS (YESHUA) TO BE AN OBEDIENT SON TO HIS FATHER (YHWH).
V AS WE ALL KNOW THE GIVER AND THE RECEIVER CAN NOT BE THE SAME, THE BIBLE SHOWS THAT JESUS (YESHUA) WAS GIVEN POWER BY HIS FATHER (YHWH).
VI JESUS (YESHUA) CLEARLY SAID HE COULD DO NOTHING OF HIS OWN INITIATIVE, BUT ONLY WHAT HE BEHOLDS THE FATHER (YHWH) DOING:
VII NOW THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY SHOWS THE CHAIN-OF-COMMAND; FROM ALMIGHTY GOD (YHWH) ON DOWN AS FOLLOWS:
Part Three:
THE TRINITY OF THREE SCRIPTURES DESTROYS THE MYTH OF THE TRINITY:
The E-Book
INTRODUCTION TO THE WESTMINSTER CONFESSION OF FAITH AS NOTHING BUT A HERMENEUTIC METHODOLOGY TO WRONGLY BACK-UP A MYTH/FALSE DOCTRINE:
The Westminster Confession of faith was written by one Cornelius Burges, Assessor to the Westminster Assembly, in 1646. He was a very skilled individual with respect twisting the scriptures and chose hermeneutic methodology over 'Sola Scriptura' methodology as hermeneutic methodology was well suited for twisting the scripture to eloquently make it appear that the Word of God supported what ever you wanted it to; whereas, this could NOT be done with 'Sola Scripture' methodology unless it was greatly distorted and no longer true 'Sola Scriptura' methodology.
In Section 2 of the Westminister Confession of faith dealing with the Trinity myth which he supported, he did a masterpiece of deception in obfuscating the Word of God to make it appear that it backed his favorite myth/false doctrine of the Trinity which of course it does not. In fact, nowhere does the word Trinity even appear in the Bible, as was noted by the International Encyclopedia of the Bible (*1). He carefully crafted his deception in three parts, the first, 'There is but one only living, and true God:' is true and designed to throw one off guard to the deception to follow in the last part of Section 2, clever as is the deception of any con man. The second part, 'God hath all life,(a) glory,(b) goodness,(c) blessedness,(d) in and of Himself;' is likewise basically true, but with some very subtle deception or twisting in it designed to develop the readers confidence so the reader will gulp down the God (YHWH) dishonoring false doctrine and myth of the third part as Truth which of course it is anything but.
I FIRST AND SECOND PART OF A CLEVER DECEPTION
I. & II. There is but one only,(a) living, and true God:(b) who is infinite in being and perfection,(c) a most pure spirit,(d) invisible,(e) without body, parts,(f) or passions,(g) immutable,(h) immense,(i) eternal,(k) incomprehensible,(l) almighty,(m) most wise,(n) most holy,(o) most free,(p) most absolute,(q) working all things according to the counsel of His own immutable and most righteous will,(r) for His own glory;(s) most loving,(t) gracious, merciful, long-suffering, abundant in goodness and truth, forgiving iniquity, transgression, and sin;(u) the rewarder of them that diligently seek Him;(w) and withal, most just and terrible in His judgments,(x) hating all sin,(y) and who will by no means clear the guilty.(z)
(a) Deut. 6:4; I Cor. 8:4, 6.
(b) I Thess. 1:9; Jer. 10:10.
(c) Job 11:7, 8, 9; Job 26:14.
(d) John 4:24.
(e) I Tim. 1:17.
(f) Deut. 4:15, 16; John 4:24, with Luke 24:39.
(g) Acts 14:11, 15.
(h) James 1:17; Mal. 3:6.
(i) I Kings 8:27; Jer. 23:23, 24.
(k) Ps. 90:2; I Tim. 1:17.
(l) Ps. 145:3.
(m) Gen. 17:1; Rev. 4:8.
(n) Rom. 16:27.
(o) Isa. 6:3; Rev. 4:8.
(p) Ps. 115:3.
(q) Exod. 3:14.
(r) Eph. 1:11.
(s) Prov. 16:4; Rom. 11:36.
(t) I John 4:8, 16.
(u) Exod. 34:6, 7.
(w) Heb. 11:6.
(x) Neh. 9:32, 33.
(y) Ps. 5:5, 6.
(z) Nah. 1:2, 3; Exod. 34:7.
II. God hath all life,(a) glory,(b) goodness,(c) blessedness,(d) in and of Himself; and is alone in and unto Himself all-sufficient, not standing in need of any creatures which He hath made,(e) nor deriving any glory from them,(f) but only manifesting His own glory in, by, unto, and upon them: He is the alone fountain of all being, of whom, through whom, and to whom are all things;(g) and hath most sovereign dominion over them, to do by them, for them, or upon them whatsoever Himself pleaseth.(h) In His sight all things are open and manifest;(i) His knowledge is infinite, infallible, and independent upon the creature,(k) so as nothing is to Him contingent, or uncertain.(l) He is most holy in all His counsels, in all His works, and in all His commands.(m) To Him is due from angels and men, and every other creature, whatsoever worship, service, or obedience He is pleased to require of them.(n)
(a) John 5:26.
(b) Acts 7:2.
(c) Ps. 119:68.
(d) I Tim. 6:15; Rom. 9:5.
(e) Acts 17:24, 25.
(f) Job 22:2, 3.
(g) Rom 11:36.
(h) Rev. 4:11; I Tim. 6:15; Dan. 4:25, 35.
(i) Heb. 4:13.
(k) Rom. 11:33, 34; Ps. 147:5.
(l) Acts 15:18; Ezek. 11:5.
(m) Ps. 145:17; Rom. 7:12.
(n) Rev. 5:12, 13, 14.
Please note his reference to scripture in both part 1 and 2 designed to gain the readers confidence who does not realize the difference between hermeneutic methodology which is usually used to twist and true 'Sola Scriptura' methodology which is designed to bring out Bible Truths or to let the Bible interpret itself per 2 Peter 1:20, "Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.," (Authorized King James Bible; AV). Also, please bear in mind the following two scriptures from the Old Testament when we next discuss Section 3 and think why they show this whole section is error. These scriptures are:
Psalm 80:17 "Let thy hand be upon the MAN of thy right hand, upon the son of man whom thou madest strong for thyself." (AV).
In Colossians 3:1 "If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God." (AV).
Now just thing, If Jesus Christ sits on the right hand of God, then he must be the MAN mentioned in Psalm 80:17. And if Jesus Christ is the MAN that sits on the right hand of God...., obviously Cornelius Burges, Assessor to the Westminster Assembly, is a deceptive twister and all he says is to be rejected as the God (YHWH) dishonoring teaching of mankind warned against at Titus 1:10-11, "For there are many unruly and vain talkers and deceivers, specially they of the circumcision: 11 Whose mouths must be stopped, who subvert whole houses, teaching things which they ought not, for filthy lucre's sake." (AV); remember many false prophets like Cornelius Burgess, per 1 John 4:1, "Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world." (AV).
III SECTION THREE, THE GREAT DECEPTION
Section three shall be covered by first presenting exactly what the deceiver Cornelius Burgess wrote, and the scriptures he used in a hermeneutics methodology way of deceiving to seemingly back up the false doctrine and myth he was presenting. Then, each scripture he used in his deception will be commented on individually to show its true Biblical significance as the Word of God so all will be able to understand how Cornelius Burgess was being deceitful and twisting the Word of God.
In the unity of the Godhead there be three persons, of one substance, power, and eternity; God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost.(o) The Father is of none, neither begotten, nor proceeding: the Son is eternally begotten of the Father:(p) the Holy Ghost eternally proceeding from the Father and the Son.(q)
(o) I John 5:7; Matt. 3:16, 17; Matt. 28:19; II Cor. 13:14.
(p) John 1:14, 18.
(q) John 15:26; Gal. 4:6.
Now we shall deal with each scripture individually by section:
<<Sub Section 'O' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
The first scripture, the deceiver Cornelius Burgess used was an added to scripture of 1 John 5:7 as contained in the Authorized King James Bible which is the most well known intentional distortion of scripture in the entire Bible, what lack of integrity and honesty:
Commentary on 1 John 5:7:
1 John 5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." (Authorized King James: AV)
1 John 5:7 "And there are Three who give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost. And these three are one." (Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible)
1 John 5:7 " For there are three that testify:" (New American Standard Bible: NASB)
1 John 5:7 "There are three that testify:" (New Revised Standard Version; NRSV)
1 John 5:7 "quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant (The Latin Vulgate)
As one can clearly see these three scriptures all of 1 John 5:7, are quite different, now why is this? Let's find out!
Many say 1 John 5:7 is the center masterpiece for the concept of the Trinity, i.e., the center or sustaining gem so to speak of this doctrine. One such follows:
This is the only passage in the whole Bible that gives any color to the trinity or "oneness" doctrines. It is the central crystal of the Christian faith upon which we hold the blessed trinity to be ever eternal self-evident to all. [Catholic pamphlet from 1903]
Now for this to be true, the Authorized King James and the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible versions would of necessity have to be true and the New American Standard Bible rendering false; but then Jerome's original Latin Vulgate had a rendering more in line with the New American Standard Bible (NASB) so there is cast the question of why the earliest Catholic bible was quite different from the present.
Really one or the other would have to be an intentional corruption of scripture in violation of Revelation 22:18, "It testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God shall add to him the plagues which are written in this book;" (NASB)
Clearly someone has added to one of these two renderings of 1 John 5:7 since this is clearly NOT a difference resulting from differs in translation. Now which has been added to in violation of God's (YHWH's) commandment as recorded by his Apostle John?
Well let's see what the Moody Bible Institute has to say on this in one of their publications. "The text of this verse should read, 'Because there are three that bear record.' The remainder of the verse is spurious. Not a single manuscript contains the Trinitarian addition before the fourteenth century, and the verse is never quoted in the controversies over the Trinity in the first 450 years of the church era." [The Wycliffe Bible Commentary," edited by Charles F. Pfeiffer (OT) and Earett F. Harrison (NT), by Moody Press, Chicago, a division of Moody Bible Institute, ISBN: 0-8024-9695-4, Library of Congress Catalogue Card #: 62-20893, page 1477].
Quite an admission from an institute that is pro-Trinitarian; therefore, the New American Standard Bible is correct and the Authorized King James and the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible are in gross error here with respect to this addition made in violation of the command of Revelation 18:22. My what a surprise. In fact this corruption, "and these three are one" was added by a monk, and is so well knows, as previously mentioned, as a corrupt and spurious verse addition that it even has its own name, Comma Johanna (in Greek, Comma Ioanneum), can you imagine that?
In fact this corruption of scripture does not appear in any manuscript in or out of the New Testament earlier than the 13 th. Century. It occurs in NO ancient Gree, manuscript, nor in the writings of any Greek Christian writers. "It is universally discredited by Greek scholars and editors of the Greek text of the New Testament." ["The Goodspeed Parallel New Testament," by Edgar J. Goodspeed - Chicago 1943, page 557].
Strange, all good Bible scholars recognize this as spurious including Catholic scholars, but, "....most Catholic writers of the present day agree the words were not contained in the original test; at the same time, until further action be taken by the Holy See it is not open to Catholic editors to eliminate the words from a version made for use of the faithful." [The Westminister Version of the Sacred Scriptures," Cutbert Lattey, S.J., and Joseph Keating, S.J., general editors, Vol. IV, pages 145 and 146, London 1931]. Now really why is this, obviously they do NOT want the 'faithful' to know they have NOT been told the truth and that their false Trinity doctrine does not 'hold water.'
Most modern Bibles have eliminated this spurious addition done against the command found at Revelations 22:18: see the following:
For there are three that testify: (New American Standard Bible: NASB)
There are three that testify: (New Revised Standard Version: NRSV)
And the Spirit is the witness, because the Spirit is the truth. (The Revised Standard Version; RSV)
There are three witnesses: (The Good News Translation)
So there are three witnesses that tell us about Jesus: (New Century Version)
It is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is the truth. (World English Version)
For they that bear witness are three. (The Darby Translation)
For there are three that testify: (Holman Standard Christian Translation)
For there are three that give testimony-- the Spirit, the water, and the blood; (Weymouth Translation)
For there are three that testify: (New International Version)
Now really, how can anyone in all honesty believe a false doctrine whose principle support has been text that is spurious or test that can be translated at least nine (9) different ways without violating the grammatical rules of Koine Greek as can John 1:1? Especially so when the common rendering is shown to be out of context by John 1:2 and John 1:14 right after it.
Obviously thinking individuals should recognize the nonsense doctrine of the three-in-one god as spurious God (YHWH) dishonoring doctrine of men and NOT from God (YHWH).
IV APPENDIX TO COMMENTARY ON 1 JOHN 5:7
(1) The Textual Problem in 1 John 5:7-8 by Daniel B. Wallace, Ph.D.
"5:7 For there are three that testify, 5:8 the Spirit and the water and the blood, and these three are in agreement." --NET Bible
Before toV pneu'ma kaiV toV u{dwr kaiV toV ai|ma, the Textus Receptus reads ejn tw'/ oujranw'/, oJ pathvr, oJ lovgo", kaiV toV a{gion pneu'ma, kaiV ou|toi oiJ trei'" e{n eijsi. 5:8 kaiV trei'" eijsin oiJ marturou'nte" ejn th'/ gh'/ ("in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 5:8 And there are three that testify on earth"). This reading, the infamous Comma Johanneum, has been known in the English-speaking world through the King James translation. However, the evidence-both external and internal-is decidedly against its authenticity. Our discussion will briefly address the external evidence.1
This longer reading is found only in eight late manuscripts, four of which have the words in a marginal note. Most of these manuscripts (2318, 221, and [with minor variations] 61, 88, 429, 629, 636, and 918) originate from the 16th century; the earliest manuscript, codex 221 (10th century), includes the reading in a marginal note which was added sometime after the original composition. Thus, there is no sure evidence of this reading in any Greek manuscript until the 1500s; each such reading was apparently composed after Erasmus' Greek NT was published in 1516. Indeed, the reading appears in no Greek witness of any kind (either manuscript, patristic, or Greek translation of some other version) until AD 1215 (in a Greek translation of the Acts of the Lateran Council, a work originally written in Latin). This is all the more significant, since many a Greek Father would have loved such a reading, for it so succinctly affirms the doctrine of the Trinity.2 The reading seems to have arisen in a fourth century Latin homily in which the text was allegorized to refer to members of the Trinity. From there, it made its way into copies of the Latin Vulgate, the text used by the Roman Catholic Church.
The Trinitarian formula (known as the Comma Johanneum) made its way into the third edition of Erasmus' Greek NT (1522) because of pressure from the Catholic Church. After his first edition appeared (1516), there arose such a furor over the absence of the Comma that Erasmus needed to defend himself. He argued that he did not put in the Comma because he found no Greek manuscripts that included it. Once one was produced (codex 61, written by one Roy or Froy at Oxford in c. 1520),3 Erasmus apparently felt obliged to include the reading. He became aware of this manuscript sometime between May of 1520 and September of 1521. In his annotations to his third edition he does not protest the rendering now in his text,4 as though it were made to order; but he does defend himself from the charge of indolence, noting that he had taken care to find whatever manuscripts he could for the production of his Greek New Testament. In the final analysis, Erasmus probably altered the text because of politico-theologico-economic concerns: he did not want his reputation ruined, nor his Novum Instrumentum to go unsold.
Modern advocates of the Textus Receptus and KJV generally argue for the inclusion of the Comma Johanneum on the basis of heretical motivation by scribes who did not include it. But these same scribes elsewhere include thoroughly orthodox readings-even in places where the TR/Byzantine manuscripts lack them. Further, these KJV advocates argue theologically from the position of divine preservation: since this verse is in the TR, it must be original. But this approach is circular, presupposing as it does that the TR = the original text. Further, it puts these Protestant proponents in the awkward and self-contradictory position of having to affirm that the Roman Catholic humanist, Erasmus, was just as inspired as the apostles, for on several occasions he invented readings-due either to carelessness or lack of Greek manuscripts (in particular, for the last six verses of Revelation Erasmus had to back-translate from Latin to Greek).
In reality, the issue is history, not heresy: How can one argue that the Comma Johanneum must go back to the original text when it did not appear until the 16th century in any Greek manuscripts? Such a stance does not do justice to the gospel: faith must be rooted in history. To argue that the Comma must be authentic is Bultmannian in its method, for it ignores history at every level. As such, it has very little to do with biblical Christianity, for a biblical faith is one that is rooted in history.
Significantly, the German translation done by Luther was based on Erasmus' second edition (1519) and lacked the Comma. But the KJV translators, basing their work principally on Theodore Beza's 10th edition of the Greek NT (1598), a work which itself was fundamentally based on Erasmus' third and later editions (and Stephanus' editions), popularized the Comma for the English-speaking world. Thus, the Comma Johanneum has been a battleground for English-speaking Christians more than for others.
Unfortunately, for many, the Comma and other similar passages have become such emotional baggage that is dragged around whenever the Bible is read that a knee-jerk reaction and ad hominem argumentation becomes the first and only way that they can process this issue. Sadly, neither empirical evidence nor reason can dissuade them from their views. The irony is that their very clinging to tradition at all costs (namely, of an outmoded translation which, though a literary monument in its day, is now like a Model T on the Autobahn) emulates Roman Catholicism in its regard for tradition.5 If the King James translators knew that this would be the result nearly four hundred years after the completion of their work, they'd be writhing in their graves.
1 For a detailed discussion, see Metzger, Textual Commentary, 2nd ed., 647-49.
2 Not only the ancient orthodox writers, but also modern orthodox scholars would of course be delighted if this reading were the original one. But the fact is that the evidence simply does not support the Trinitarian formula here-and these orthodox scholars just happen to hold to the reasonable position that it is essential to affirm what the Bible affirms where it affirms it, rather than create such affirmations ex nihilo. That KJV advocates have charged modern translations with heresy because they lack the Comma is a house of cards, for the same translators who have worked on the NIV, NASB, or NET (as well as many other translations) have written several articles and books affirming the Trinity.
3 This manuscript which contains the entire New Testament is now housed in Dublin. It has been examined so often at this one place that the book now reportedly falls open naturally to 1 John 5.
4 That Erasmus made such a protest or that he had explicitly promised to include the Comma is an overstatement of the evidence, though the converse of this can be said to be true: Erasmus refused to put this in his without Greek manuscript support.
5 Thus, TR-KJV advocates subconsciously embrace two diametrically opposed traditions: when it comes to the first 1500 years of church history, they hold to a Bultmannian kind of Christianity (viz., the basis for their belief in the superiority of the Byzantine manuscripts-and in particular, the half dozen that stand behind the TR-has very little empirical substance of historical worth). Once such readings became a part of tradition, however, by way of the TR, the argument shifts to one of tradition rather than non-empirical fideism. Neither basis, of course, resembles Protestantism
Commentary on Matthew 3:13-17 all 'Sola Scriptura,' covering Matthew 3:16-17 and more.
Matthew 3:13-17 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to the Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John would have hindered him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 But Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffereth him. 16 And Jesus when he was baptized, went up straightway from the water: and lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove, and coming upon him; 17 and lo, a voice out of the heavens, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. [American Standard Version; ASV]
Clearly this scripture shows that Jesus' (Yeshua's) Father, Almighty God (YHWH) approved of his Son, and sent his spirit, the Spirit of God. This was also testified to at Acts 10:38, "How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him." (Authorized King James Bible; AV); And at Luke 9:34-35, "And there came a voice out of the cloud, and overshadowed them: and they feared as they entered into the cloud. 35 And there came a voice out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him." (AV); And at Matthew 17:5, "While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him." (AV). In fact, John the Baptist said as recorded at John 1:32, "And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him. 33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the holy Ghost." (AV). Clearly these scriptures show two separate individuals or beings, a superior one, Almighty God (YHWH), and a subordinate one, his Son, Jesus (Yeshua).
Now what is this Spirit or Holy Spirit that John the Baptist mentioned? The Holy Spirit is only God's (YHWH's) active force and not even a spirit being or person. This is clearly shown at Pentecost where the Holy Spirit was poured out onto all there, Acts 2:1-4, "And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. 2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. 3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance." (AV). This entire scripture bespeaks of a force and not a being as you do not get filled with a being! And this fact is reaffirmed at Acts 4:31, ""And when they had prayed, the place was shaken where they were assembled together; and they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and they spoke the word of God with boldness." (AV); And 2 Corinthians 1:21-22, "Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God; 22 Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts." (AV), surely a being would not be in our hearts as that is ludicrous, thus this scripture talks of God's (YHWH's) active force; This is clearly shown at Luke 11:13, "If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?" (AV). Once more, why? Why? Do many say they are coequal and coeternal when clearly they are not and the Holy Ghost is just God's (YHWH's) active force? Only to try to give some resemblance of reality to a myth as we shall later see. An interesting note on the Spirit is that the neuter Greek word for spirit (pneu'ma) is used, the neuter pronoun "it" is properly employed. This fact is conveniently over looked or hidden by most Trinitarian translators as admitted in the "New American Bible Catholic Bible," regarding John 14:17: "The Greek word for 'Spirit' is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English ('he,' 'his,' 'him'), most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ 'it.'" So when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with pa•ra'kle•tos at John 16:7, 8, it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine.
Jesus' (Yeshua's) coming and his anointing by his Father (YHWH) was foretold in advance at Isaiah 42:1 where God (YHWH) called his Son his servant, "Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles." (AV); And Matthew 12:18 foretells the fulfillment, "Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles." (AV). Likewise, this is testified to at Isaiah 11:2, "And the spirit of the Lord shall rest upon him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the Lord;" (AV). In fact, Jesus (Yeshua) prayed to his Father (YHWH) just before his execution, saying at John 12:28, "Father, glorify thy name, Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again." (AV).
Yet there are those misguided ones that accept the false God (YHWH) dishonoring doctrine of the Trinity that claim the Father (YHWH) and the Son, Jesus (Yeshua) are coequal which clearly when one prays to the other, this claim can NOT be true. In fact, the doctrine of The Trinity defies the universally accepted and historically always held meaning of the words for father and son. Not only does it defy the meaning of these words, it destroys their meaning! This fact is important to realize for God gave us language. It was not invented by man as the evolutionist tries to say. Thus, we are not destroying man made terms, but God-given terms! One well known document, The Westminister Confession, even goes so far as to state, "In the unity of the Godhead there be three persons, of one substance, power, and eternity." But we have seen this is impossible if the Bible is true. At John 14:28, "Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I." (AV); thus, clearly no coequality as required by the Godhead theory of this document as clearly earlier shown. The Spirit is not even a being, but God's (YHWH's) active force.
Commentary on 2 Corinthians 13:13-14 all 'Sola Scriptura,' covering 2 Corinthians 13:14 and more:
2 Corinthians 13:13-14 All the saints salute you. 14 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit, be with you all. (American Standard Version; ASV)
Here the Apostle Paul expresses the hope that the grace of the Lord, Jesus (Yeshua) Christ, and of love of his Father, God (YHWH), and the spirit or power of God (YHWH) shall be on all true Christians. And the Apostle John follows through with this thought at John 14:26, "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." (Authorized King James Bible; AV). Of this Holy Spirit or Ghost, Jesus (Yeshua) spoke of the holy spirit as a "helper," and he said it would teach, guide, and speak as recorded at John 14:16-17, "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; 17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you." (AV). And this same thought is carried at John 16:13, ""Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. 14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you." (AV). The Greek word he used for helper (pa•ra'kle•tos) is in the masculine gender. Thus, when Jesus referred to what the helper would do, he used masculine personal pronouns as shown at John 16:7- 8, "Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. 8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment." (AV). On the other hand, when the neuter Greek word for spirit (pneu'ma) is used, the neuter pronoun "it" is properly employed. This fact is conveniently over looked or hidden by most Trinitarian translators as admitted in the "New American Bible Catholic Bible," regarding John 14:17: "The Greek word for 'Spirit' is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English ('he,' 'his,' 'him'), most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ 'it.'" So when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with pa•ra'kle•tos at John 16:7, 8, it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine.
This scripture, 2 Corinthians 13:13-14 previously quoted, brings up the need for unity among all true Christians as do the scriptures immediately prior to it, 2 Corinthians 13:11-12, "Finally, brethren, farewell. Be perfected; be comforted; be of the same mind; live in peace: and the God of love and peace shall be with you. 12 Salute one another with a holy kiss." (ASV), and this need is further testified to at Ephesians 4:13, "Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ:" (AV). We need to per Ephesians 4:21-22, "If indeed you have heard Him and have been taught in Him, just as truth is in Jesus, 22 that in reference to your former manner of life, you lay aside the old self, which is being corrupted in accordance with the lusts of deceit," (New American Standard Bible, Ref. Ed., by Moody Press; NASB-MP), this scripture clearly showing the need to make over our personality unto the new personality acceptable to Jesus (Yeshua) Christ as testified to at Ephesians 4:23, "And be renewed tn the spirit of your mind; 24 And that ye put on the new man, which after God is created in righteousness and true holiness." (NASB-MP). This is necessary as there is only one Almighty God (YHWH) as testified to at Ephesians 4:6, "One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all." (AV). For a certainty each of us, if we accept, is, Ephesians 4:7, "But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ." (AV).
Clearly since there is but one Almighty God (YHWH) There can be no Trinity which is a myth requiring a 'Godhead' of three equal beings, coeternal and coequal as affirmed in the Westminister Confession, "In the unity of the Godhead there be three persons, of one substance, power, and eternity." But as we have seen, no such relationship exist between Almighty God (YHWH), the superior one; his son, the Son of God, Jesus (Yeshua) of which the Bible testifies at 1 Corinthians 11:3, "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God." )AV) clearly showing God (YHWH) is the head of Jesus (Yeshua) Christ; thus proving they are not coequal. Likewise Revelations 3:14 clearly shows they are not coeternal, "And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;" which shows him as the first of God's (YHWH's) creation. In fact, when Jesus (Yeshua) was ascending to be with his Father in heaven, he prayed, as recorded in John 17:5, "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." (AV). Showing he was returning to where he had been before with his Father (YHWH), see John 6:62, "What then if you should behold the Son of Man ascending where He was before?" (NASB-MP). Once returned to heaven, God's (YHWH's) Son, Jesus (Yeshua) is, 1 Peter 3:22, "Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him" (AV).
<<Sub Section 'P' Commentaries on the Scriptures>>
Commentary on John 1:14 all 'Sola Scriptura.'
John 1:14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father), full of grace and truth. (American Standard Version; ASV)
This scripture emphasis that Jesus (Yeshua) was sent to the earth to dwell among us as testified to at 1 John 4:9, "In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him." (AV); And 1 John 4:14, "And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world." (AV), clearly Jesus' (Yeshua's) Father (YHWH) sent him showing he was superior and not coequal with His Son; And Romans 6:23, "For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord." (AV). In fact, the scriptures clearly show that all true Christians must confess Jesus (Yeshua) has come in the flesh as testified to at 1 John 4:2, "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God." (AV); whereas, 2 John 7 states shows many deceiver would come, "For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist." (AV).
Clearly the only way to God (YHWH) is through his Son, Jesus (Yeshua) whom he has appointed as, 1 Timothy 2:5, "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;" (AV); and this is made even clearer by Jesus (Yeshua) at John 14:6, "Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me." (AV). God (YHWH) has given his Son Jesus (Yeshua) an assignment and given him power over everything except himself to carry it out as testified to at 1 Corinthians 15:22-28, "For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. 25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." (AV), testifies that God (YHWH) had given his Son, Jesus (Yeshua) over all except himself when the scripture says "it is manifest that he is excepted."
Jesus (Yeshua) actually prayed to his Father (YHWH) just before being put to death as a human to give him back the glory he previously had with his Father (YHWH) in heaven as recorded at John 17:5- "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. 6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept my word. 7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee. 8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me." (AV). Unmistakably Jesus (Yeshua) acknowledges in his prayer that his Father, Almighty God (YHWH) had given him everything and was his superior when he stated, "I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me." Therefore, we see that the Trinity is but a myth as the reality is that Jesus (Yeshua) is NOT coequal with his Father (YHWH), but that his Father, Almighty God (YHWH) is the Supreme one.
Commentary on John 1:18 all 'Sola Scriptura.'
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (American Standard Version, ASV)
Now this scripture seem straight forward and it is, but some translations did a poor job of translating it. Let's look at how the New International Version (NIV) translates this, "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.' Would appear to show Jesus (Yeshua) as the One and Only, but this is just an error in translation in the NIV as shown by both the Authorized King James (AV) which renders it, ""No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." And the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible renders it, "No one has at any time seen God. The only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has revealed him." Now some may ask, how do you determine for sure which way of translating is correct. You do this quite simply by investigation the scripture from the Old Testament actually being quoted here by the Apostle John for the first part of this scripture which is Exodus 33:20, "And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live." (Authorized King James Bible; AV); And compare with similar scriptures in the New Testament such as John 6:46, "Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father." (AV). Then you check the Old Testament scripture from which the Apostle John took the second part, Proverbs 8:30, where Jesus (Yeshua) while in heaven was speaking, "Then I was by him, as one brought up with him; and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him," (AV). And cross reference this in the New Testament to John 13:23, "Now there was leaning on Jesus' bosom one of his disciples, whom Jesus loved." (AV).
Now of course, people have seen Jesus (Yeshua). The Apostle John, who wrote John 1:18, saw Jesus. He even said four verses earlier that Jesus (God
according to Trinitarians) had become flesh, John 1:14, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth." Yet no one has seen God. If John were trying to say in John 1:1 that Jesus (Yeshua) was God (YHWH) and then a few verses later say no one has seen God (YHWH), would he not need to put some type of qualifying statement explaining how this can be? Or are we to assume his readers had a firm grasp of the Duality or Trinity and needed no explanation of this paradox? While some Bibles say "only-begotten son" the oldest manuscripts say "only-begotten god". Most Bible do not want to translate it literally that way since this would imply Jesus (Yeshua) was made a god by God (YHWH). So the New International Version (NIV) reads as I quoted above "God the One and Only". However, the footnote to the NIV reads "or the Only-Begotten". It is proper that the NIV placed that footnote in its Bible translation because we are inclined to ask, "the One and Only what?" In what way is the Son the 'One and Only God' that the Father (YHWH)is not? John said that Jesus (Yeshua) was with God (YHWH) and yet was a god and Jesus (Yeshua) was the only begotten son of God (YHWH), the context supports a literal translation of John 1:18. Jesus (Yeshua) was the "only-begotten god". That is, God Almighty created Jesus and put him in the position o***od or mighty spirit person whom He used to create the rest of the universe.
While it is true that angels and men can be referred to as "gods", they were not begotten directly by Almighty God.
Interestingly the NIV says, John 6:27, "Do not work for food that spoils, but for food that endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give you. On him God the Father has placed his seal of approval." (NIV). It is obvious that there are two individuals here: the Son of Man (Yeshua) and God the Father (YHWH). Two separate and distinct persons. Also notice that the Father (YHWH) places his "seal of approval" on the Son. But nowhere in the Bible is there a Scripture where the Son, Jesus (Yeshua) places approval on the Father (YHWH). This shows or indicates that the Father is in the superior position and the Son is in the inferior position, i.e., they are NOT COEQUAL.
The NIV reaffirms this fact, they are NOT COEQUAL at 1 Peter 1:1-2, "Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To God's elect, strangers in the world, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia, 2 who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through the sanctifying work of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and sprinkling by his blood: Grace and peace be yours in abundance." (NIV). Once more we see two separate and distinct beings here: God the Father (YHWH) and Jesus (Yeshua) Christ.
Now some will say that Jesus (Yeshua) and His Father (YHWH) are one-and-the-same based on the usual out of context rendering of John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Well, try to keep the mental context of who Jesus was to the people who lived and studied about him when the Bible text was written. Apart from this verse, there is no indicator that anyone thought that Jesus (Yeshua)was God (YHWH). This is made clear by John 1:2, which shows, "The same was in the beginning with God." (AV); And John 1:10, "He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not." (AV); Last consider John 1:14, previously quoted, and it is quite clear that they are NOT the same individual. But two distinct individuals. Note, some Bibles correctly render this as either as "the Word was a god," or "the Word was Divine." Both of these are in harmony with the remaining scriptures in John the first chapter.
The fact is that no Apostle nor any other writer of the Bible ever came out and stated that "there is One God: Father, Son, and Holy Ghost". No example of the thousands of occurrences of YHWH and God in the original manuscripts can be shown to mean 'God in three Persons' as some falsely claim. In fact neither the word Duality nor Trinity appear nowhere in the scriptures. So be ye not mislead into believing the doctrines of men, but remember John 8:32, "And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free." (AV).
See Part Two: